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-1 / 1 = 1 / -1
i/sqrt(1) = sqrt(1)/i
sqrt(i) = sqrt(1) * sqrt(1)/sqrt(i)
sqrt(i) = 1 / sqrt(i)
-1 = 1

0 = infinity
0+1-1=0+2=2+2=4
10 = 64
1 = 2
I don't see how any of those are correct.
a / b != b / a
b != a^2/b
b != a/b

and of course
-1 != 1

Or am i missunderstanding ?
since when does the square root of i = -1?
Girls = Time * Money
Time = Money
Girls = money ^ 2

And since money is the root of evil:

Girls = evil :evil:

Doesn't take calculus to tell you that... 8)
toonski: the i thing is to do with complex numbers. (prepares....)

Quadratic equations have roots. But some, like x² + x + 1 = 0 have no roots. An attempted solution using the quadratic formula fails because we cannot evaluate the square root of negative numbers. But if we could add in the root x² + 1 = 0, then all quadratics would have real roots. Thus we use the letter i to stand for the square root of -1 as an imaginary number to solve these equations.

I don't like the logic behind the second line in your proof Agamemnus. If you substitute sqrt(1) with 1:

-1 / 1 = 1 / -1
i = 1 / i ???? problem

How does i = 1 / i? The only number with the property q/p = p/q is 1.

0 Never will equal infinity because infinity * -1 = -infinity but 0 * -1 = 0. Infinity has the property of being positive, and can be changed to negative but 0 is neither positive nor negative

Blitz: is that factorials you are using here: b ! ? Because -1 ! is unevaluatable.

EDIT: RST, that is cool!! 8)
?
!= means not equal to
Eh? You're intergrating maths with programming syntax. But I agree. Lets all not go disproving the axioms of maths.
Math is fun, neh? Big Grin
no, -1 / 1 = 1 / -1

And i = 1 / i
So i^2 = 1, and therefore -1 = 1
Therefore 0 = -1+1
And then 0=1+1, so 0=2, 0=4, 0=16... 0=infinity...

someone tell me where I'm going wrong. (actually someone else showed it to me but I cannot disprove it)
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