04-26-2003, 03:06 AM
04-26-2003, 03:48 AM
I don't see how any of those are correct.
04-26-2003, 03:48 AM
a / b != b / a
b != a^2/b
b != a/b
and of course
-1 != 1
Or am i missunderstanding ?
b != a^2/b
b != a/b
and of course
-1 != 1
Or am i missunderstanding ?
04-26-2003, 04:03 AM
since when does the square root of i = -1?
04-26-2003, 04:07 AM
Girls = Time * Money
Time = Money
Girls = money ^ 2
And since money is the root of evil:
Girls = evil :evil:
Doesn't take calculus to tell you that... 8)
Time = Money
Girls = money ^ 2
And since money is the root of evil:
Girls = evil :evil:
Doesn't take calculus to tell you that... 8)
04-26-2003, 04:25 AM
toonski: the i thing is to do with complex numbers. (prepares....)
Quadratic equations have roots. But some, like x² + x + 1 = 0 have no roots. An attempted solution using the quadratic formula fails because we cannot evaluate the square root of negative numbers. But if we could add in the root x² + 1 = 0, then all quadratics would have real roots. Thus we use the letter i to stand for the square root of -1 as an imaginary number to solve these equations.
I don't like the logic behind the second line in your proof Agamemnus. If you substitute sqrt(1) with 1:
-1 / 1 = 1 / -1
i = 1 / i ???? problem
How does i = 1 / i? The only number with the property q/p = p/q is 1.
0 Never will equal infinity because infinity * -1 = -infinity but 0 * -1 = 0. Infinity has the property of being positive, and can be changed to negative but 0 is neither positive nor negative
Blitz: is that factorials you are using here: b ! ? Because -1 ! is unevaluatable.
EDIT: RST, that is cool!! 8)
Quadratic equations have roots. But some, like x² + x + 1 = 0 have no roots. An attempted solution using the quadratic formula fails because we cannot evaluate the square root of negative numbers. But if we could add in the root x² + 1 = 0, then all quadratics would have real roots. Thus we use the letter i to stand for the square root of -1 as an imaginary number to solve these equations.
I don't like the logic behind the second line in your proof Agamemnus. If you substitute sqrt(1) with 1:
-1 / 1 = 1 / -1
i = 1 / i ???? problem
How does i = 1 / i? The only number with the property q/p = p/q is 1.
0 Never will equal infinity because infinity * -1 = -infinity but 0 * -1 = 0. Infinity has the property of being positive, and can be changed to negative but 0 is neither positive nor negative
Blitz: is that factorials you are using here: b ! ? Because -1 ! is unevaluatable.
EDIT: RST, that is cool!! 8)
04-26-2003, 04:41 AM
?
!= means not equal to
!= means not equal to
04-26-2003, 04:50 AM
Eh? You're intergrating maths with programming syntax. But I agree. Lets all not go disproving the axioms of maths.
04-26-2003, 06:45 AM
Math is fun, neh?
04-26-2003, 07:39 AM
no, -1 / 1 = 1 / -1
And i = 1 / i
So i^2 = 1, and therefore -1 = 1
Therefore 0 = -1+1
And then 0=1+1, so 0=2, 0=4, 0=16... 0=infinity...
someone tell me where I'm going wrong. (actually someone else showed it to me but I cannot disprove it)
And i = 1 / i
So i^2 = 1, and therefore -1 = 1
Therefore 0 = -1+1
And then 0=1+1, so 0=2, 0=4, 0=16... 0=infinity...
someone tell me where I'm going wrong. (actually someone else showed it to me but I cannot disprove it)